School text book just says British occupied India for spices. But that does not make sense as Indian spices are used in food and have heat. Cuisine in Britain and western world at that time was very different from Indian cuisine. So how did they profit from spices from India? Who did they sell the spices to?

I get that Britain profited from India during ww2 as they got free soldiers and food supplies for their troops. I want to know what was the financial benefit before ww2. They occupied India for around 200 years so there must be more than spices.

26 comments

Posted by1 day ago

Working Paper

In 1793, The East India Company introduced major institutional reform in Bengal. This came out of a conflict between two competing ideas on how to simultaneously extract the greatest revenue and gather information to serve the fiscal state. (T. Roy, June 2023)

lse.ac.uk/Econom...

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Posted by14 hours ago

Announcement

Economic Rhapsody - Join the Exciting Journey of Economic History; Teasers week

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Posted by20 hours ago

Question

Why some former colonies that rely on primary goods (like Senegal, Philippines, Ghana) are still poor; while others (like Kuwait, Malaysia, Botswana) have considerably increased their quality of life?

is there something in common that ties these two different group of countries together?

12 comments

Posted by19 hours ago

Journal Article

The introduction of the income tax tended to occur earlier under less democratic regimes, but this early growth in taxation tended to happen when elites could still monitor the executive (P Andersson, June 2023)

doi.org/10.101...

0 comments

About Community

Welcome to r/EconomicHistory! Economic history is the study of economic phenomena in the past. This is a subreddit for any journal articles, news articles, discussions, questions, or other media pertaining to this discipline. If you are looking to become more familiar with key topics in economic history, please consider reviewing our Reading List!

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